Hi all,
Were looking to buy a house where there is a shared drive.
The neighbour of the house that were buying owns the driveway.
The deeds that Ive seen has no mention of the drive being shared.
The houses were built in the 1930s and have garages, however they were added at a later date.
The neighbour brought their house 12 years ago, with the vendor of the house that we want to buy,
buying theirs 6 months later.
My question is,
because the driveway has served both properties before the current owners moved into their houses,
could it be argued that there is right of way/access for both properties on this driveway under the 20yr contestant
and uncontested use law?
Many thanks :0